What Christadelphians believe about ...

The Atonement

Why Did Christ Die?

The question has long proved difficult for many, chiefly on account of a misunderstanding, which made Christ a substitute for the sinner, bearing the punishment instead of him, so allowing the sinner to go free. The difficulty so caused is this: how is righteousness upheld by the death of the innocent, and how does God forgive sin if He exacts its full penalty?

The difficulty vanishes when the Scriptural teaching of the sacrifice of Christ is understood:

1 Why did Christ die?

"Christ died for us." (Romans 5: 8; 1 Thessalonians 5:10).
"Christ died for the ungodly." (Romans 5:6).
"One died for all." (2 Corinthians 5:14).

2 What does this mean? Does "die for" mean "die instead of" or "die on account of"? This is answered by the following citations, in which the original word translated "for" is the same.

"Christ died for our sins." (1 Corinthians 15:3).
"He gave himself for our sins " (Galatians 1:4).
"He offered one sacrifice for sins for ever." (Hebrews 10:12).
"He ever liveth to make intercession for us" (Hebrews 7:25).

3 Why was it necessary that Christ should die on account of our sins?

"To declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past through the forbearance of God." (Romans 3:25).

Here God, through the kindness of His "forbearance," "remits" or forgives sin, on account of the sacrifice of Christ as the declaration of His righteousness.

4 Why should God require the declaration of His righteousness before He will pardon offences unto life eternal?

"I will be sanctified in them that Come nigh unto me, and before all the people I will he glorified"
(Leviticus 10:3).
"I am a great King, saith the Lord of Hosts; and my name is dreadful" (Malachi 1:14).

He is the High and the Lofty One, inhabiting eternity. He is clothed with honour and majesty. Holy and reverend is His Name. Let all the earth keep silence before Him (Isaiah 57:15; Psalm 104:1; 111:9; Habakkuk 2:20).

5 How was the righteousness of God, in His dealings with mankind, shown in the sacrifice of Jesus?

"Death had passed upon all through Adam" (Romans 5:12; 1 Corinthians 15:21).

Sentence of death was passed upon him as a result of his disobedience (Genesis 3:19). This sentence passed on all his descendants (Romans 5:14). Consequently children are mortal who never sinned.

Now Jesus, though the Son of God, was also the Son of man, and partook of his nature in all points. (Read carefully Hebrews 2:14,17; 4:15; Romans 8:3; 1:3; 2 Timothy 2:8; Matthew 1:1).

Since Jesus partook of the sin-and-death nature of Adam's descendants, his death was "a declaration of the righteousness of God," because it was the representative death of this sinful nature.

6 Why could the same declaration of righteousness not have taken place in the death of any other son of Adam?

Because, in the case of any other son of Adam, the result would have been abortive. The righteousness of God is declared in the death of every sinner, but stops short at the grave. The object in the case of Christ was to go beyond the grave to abolish death, through or by means of death, and this could only be done in one who was without sin, who then could rise from the dead to immortality.

He took part in flesh and blood "that through death he might destroy him that hath the power of death, that is the devil," that is, sin; "for he put away sin by the sacrifice of himself" (Hebrews 2:14; 9:26).

"He died unto sin once" (Romans 6:10).
"He hath abolished death" (2 Timothy 1:10).
"Death hath no more dominion over him" (Romans 6:9).

7 Would the sacrificial declaration of the righteousness of God in the death of Christ have been effective if Christ had not risen from the dead?

"If Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins" (1 Corinthians 15:14).
"Then they also that are fallen asleep in Christ are perished." (1 Corinthians 15:18).
"It is Christ that died, yea, rather, that is risen again." (Romans 8:34).

In the popular view of the death of Christ as a substitute, not only would there be no declaration of God's righteousness in his death, but the resurrection of Christ could not have been essential.

8 Why was the resurrection of Christ necessary to the validity of his sacrifice?

Because the plan was to make one perfect, and give him power as head, captain, and judge over all who come unto God by him (Hebrews 2:10; 7:25; John 5:22-27; John 17:2).

9 Have we to be brought into contact with the sacrificial declaration of the righteousness of God in the death of Christ before we can approach God acceptably?

Yes, in baptism. God has appointed baptism as a ceremonial fellowship or taking part in the death of Christ on the part of those who are baptised.

"We are baptised into his death" (Romans 6:3).
"Buried with him in baptism" (Colossians 2:12).
"Crucified with Christ" (Galatians 2:20).

If substitution were correct, there could be no need for us to partake in the death of Christ. But it is not substitution; it is representation. Christ did not die instead of us, for we also have to die. He died on our account, and remission of sins is offered through Christ to all who believe the gospel, and associate themselves with his death in baptism (Acts 2:38; 13:38; Romans 6:4-5). They put on the name of Christ in baptism (Galatians 3:27), and stand covered with the sacrifice of Christ, to whom God has given power to forgive sins, and who at his coming will judge the living and the dead.